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2022全国甲卷ATheatres and EntertainmentSt David's HallSt David's Hall is the award winning National concert Hall of Wales standing at the very heart of Cardiff's entertainment centre. With an impressive 2,000-seat concert hall, St David's Hall is home

2022全国甲卷

A

Theatres and Entertainment

St David's Hall

St David's Hall is the award winning National concert Hall of Wales standing at the very heart of Cardiff's entertainment centre. With an impressive 2,000-seat concert hall, St David's Hall is home to the annual Welsh Proms Cardiff. It presents live entertainment, including pop, rock, folk, jazz, musicals, dance, world music, films and classical music.

The Hayes, Cardiff CF 10 1 AH

www.stdavidshallcardiff.co.uk

The Glee Club

Every weekend this is "Wales" premier comedy club where having a great time is the order for both audiences and comedy stars alike. It is hard to name a comedy star who hasn't been on the stage here. If you are looking for the best comedies on tour and brilliant live music, you should start here.

Mermaid Quay, Cardiff Bay, Cardiff CF 10 5 BZ

www.glee.co.uk/cardiff

Sherman Cymru

Sherman Cymru's theatre in the Cathays area of Cardiff reopened in February 2012. This special building is a place in which theatre is made and where children, artists, writers and anyone else have the opportunity (机会) to do creative things. Sherman Cymru is excited to present a packed programme of the very best theatre, dance, family shows and music from Wales and the rest of the world.

Senghennydd Road, Cardiff CF 24 4 YE

www.shermancymru.co.uk

New Theatre

The New Theatre has been the home of quality drama, musicals, dance and children's shows for more than 100 years. Presenting the best of the West End along with the pick of the UK's touring shows, the New Theatre is Cardiff's oldest surviving traditional theatre. Be sure to pay a visit as part of your stay in the city.

Park Place, Cardiff CF 10 3 LN

www.newtheatrecardiff.co.uk

21. Where is the Welsh Proms Cardiff hosted?

A. At the New Theatre. B. At the Glee Club.

C. At Sherman Cymru. D. At St David's Hall.

22. What can people do at the Glee Club?

A. Watch musicals. B. Enjoy comedies.

C. See family shows. D. Do creative things.

23. Which website can you visit to learn about Cardiff's oldest surviving theatre?

A. www.newtheatrecardiff.co.uk B. www.shermancymru.co.uk

C. www.glee.co.uk/cardiff D. www.stdavidshalleardiff.co.uk

B

Goffin's cockatoos, a kind of small parrot native to Australasia, have been shown to have similar shape-recognition abilities to a human two-year-old. though not known to use tools in the wild, the birds have proved skilful at tool use while kept in the cage. In a recent experiment, cockatoos were presented with a box with a nut inside it. The clear front of the box had a "keyhole" in a geometric shape, and the birds were given five differently shaped "keys" to choese from. Inserting the correct "key" would let out the nut.

In humans, babies can put a round shape in a round hole from around one year of age, but it will be another year before they are able to do the same with less symmetrical(对称的) shapes. his ability to recognize that a shape will need to be turned in a specific direction before it will fit is called an "allocentric frame of reference". In the experiment, Goffin's cockatoos were able to select the right tool for the job, in most cases, by visual recognition alone. Where trial-and-error was used, the cockatoos did better than monkeys in similar tests. This indicates that Goffin's cockatoos do indeed possess an allocentric frame of reference when moving objects in space, similar to two-year-old babies.

The next step, according to the researchers, is to try and work out whether the cockatoos rely entirely on visual clues(线索), or also use a sense of touch in making their shape selections.

24. How did the cockatoos get the nut from the box in the experiment?

A. By following instructions. B. By using a tool.

C. By turning the box around. D. By removing the lid.

25. Which task can human one-year-olds most likely complete according to the text?

A. Using a key to unlock a door. B. Telling parrots from other birds.

C. Putting a ball into a round hole. D. Grouping toys of different shapes.

26. What does the follow-up test aim to find out about the cockatoos?

A. How far they are able to see. B. How they track moving objects.

C. Whether they are smarter than monkeys. D. Whether they use a sense of touch in the test.

27. Which can be a suitable title for the text?

A. Cockatoos: Quick Error Checkers B. Cockatoos: independent Learners

C. Cockatoos: Clever Signal-Readers D. Cockatoos: Skilful Shape-Sorters

C

As Ginni Bazlinton reached Antarctica, she found herself greeted by a group of little Gentoo penguins(企鹅)longing to say hello. These gentle, lovely gatekeepers welcomed her and kick-started what was to be a trip Ginni would never forget.

Ever since her childhood, Ginni, now 71, has had a deep love for travel. throughout her career(职业)as a professional dancer, she toured in the UK, but always longed to explore further When she retired from dancing and her sons eventually flew the nest, she decided it was time to take the plunge.

After taking a degree at Chichester university in Related Arts, Ginni began to travel the world, eventually getting work teaching English in Japan and Chile.And it was in Chile she discovered she could get last-minute cheap deals on ships going to Antarctica from the islands off Tierra del Fuego, the southernmost tip of the South American mainland. "I just decided wanted to go," she says. "I had no idea about what I'd find there and I wasn't nervous, I just wanted to do it. And I wanted to do it alone as I always prefer it that way."

In March 2008, Ginni boarded a ship with 48 passengers she'd never met before, to begin the journey towards Antarctica. "From seeing the wildlife to witnessing sunrises, the whole experience was amazing.Antarctica left an impression on me that no other place has,"Ginni says."I remember the first time I saw a humpback whale;it just rose out of the water like some prehistoric creature and I thought it was smiling at us.You could still hear the operatic sounds it was making underwater."

The realization that this is a precious land,to be respected by humans,was one of the biggest things that hit home to Ginni.

28. Which of the following best explains "take the plunge"underlined in paragraph 2?

A. Try challenging things.B. Take a degree.

C. bring back lost memories.D. Stick to a promise.

29. What made Ginni decide on the trip to Antarctica?

A. Lovely penguins.B. Beautiful scenery.

C. A discount fare.D. A friend's invitation.

30. What does Ginni think about Antarctica after the journey?

A. It could be a home for her.B. It should be easily accessible.

C. It should be well preserved.D. It needs to be fully introduced.

31. What is the text mainly about?

A. A childhood dream.B. An unforgettable experience.

C. Sailing around the world.D. Meeting animals in Antarctica.

D

Sometime in the early 1960s,a significant thing happened in Sydney, Australia.The city discovered its harbor.Then,one after another,Sydney discovered tots of things that were justsort of there-broad parks,superb beaches,and a culturally diverse population.But it is the harbor that makes the city.

Andrew Reynolds,a cheerful fellow in his early 30s,pilots Sydney ferryboats for a living.I spent the whole morning shuttling back and forth across the harbor.After our third run Andrew shut down the engine,and we went our separate ways-he for a lunch break,I to explore the city.

"I'll miss these old boats,"he said as we parted.

"How do you mean?"I asked.

"Oh,they're replacing them with catamarans.Catamarans are faster,but they're not so elegant,and they're not fun to pilot.Hut that's progress,I guess."

Everywhere in Sydney these days, change and progress are the watchwords(口号), and traditions are increasingly rare. Shirley Fitzgerald, the city's official historian, told me that in its rush to modernity in the 1970s, Sydney swept aside much of its past, including many of its finest buildings. "Sydney is confused about itself," she said."We can't seem to make up our minds whether we want a modern city or a traditional one.It's a conflict that we aren't getting any better at resolving(解决).”

On the other hand,being young and old at the same time has its attractions.I considered this when I met a thoughtful young businessman named Anthony."Many people say that we lack culture in this country,"he told me."What people forget is that the Italians,when they came to Australia,brought 2000 years of their culture,the Greeks some 3000 years,and the Chinese more still.We've got a foundation built on ancient cultures but with a drive and dynamism of a young country.It's a pretty hard combination to beat."

He is right,but I can't help wishing they would keep those old ferries.

32. What is the first paragraph mainly about?

A. Sydney's striking architecture. B. The cultural diversity of Sydney.

C. The key to Sydney's development. D. Sydney's tourist attractions in the 1960s.

33. What can we learn about Andrew Reynolds?

A. He goes to work by boat. B. He looks forward to a new life.

C. He pilots catamarans well. D. He is attached to the old ferries.

34. What does Shirley Fitzgerald think of Sydney?

A. It is losing its traditions.B. It should speed up its progress.

C. It should expand its population.D. It is becoming more international.

35. Which statement will the author probably agree with?

A. A city can be young and cad at the same time.

B. A city built on ancient cultures is more dynamic.

C. modernity is usually achieved at the cost of elegance.

D. Compromise should be made between the local and the foreign.

2022年全国乙卷

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。

A

Henry Raeburn (1756-1823)

The Exhibition

This exhibition of some sixty masterpieces celebrating the life and work of Scotland's best loved painter, Sir Henry Raeburn, comes to London. Selected from collections throughout the world, it is the first major exhibition of his work to be held in over forty years.

Lecture Series

Scottish National Portrait(肖像画) Gallery presents a series of lectures for the general public. They are held in the lecture Room. admission to lectures is free.

Exhibition Times

Monday-Saturday 10.00-17.45 Sunday 12.00-17.45

Last admission to the exhibition: 17.15. There is no re-admission.

Closed: 24-26 December and 1 January.

Admission

£4. Children under 12 years accompanied by an adult are admitted free.

Schools and Colleges

A special low entrance charge of £2 per person is available to all in full-time education, up to and including those at first degree level, in organised groups with teachers.

21.What is the right time for attending Raeburn's English Contemporaries?

A.Sun. 26 Oct. B.Thurs. 30 Oct.

C.Thurs. 6 Nov. D.Thurs. 13 Nov.

22.How much would a couple with two children under 12 pay for admission?

A.£4. B.£8. C.£12. D.£16.

23.How can full-time students get group discounts?

A.They should go on Sunday mornings. B.They should come from art schools.

C.They must be led by teachers. D.They must have ID cards with them.

B

In 1916, two girls of wealthy families, best friends from Auburn, N. Y.—Dorothy Woodruff and Rosamond Underwood—traveled to a settlement in the Rocky Mountains to teach in a one-room schoolhouse. The girls had gone to Smith College. They wore expensive clothes. So for them to move to Elkhead, Colo. to instruct the children whose shoes were held together with string was a surprise. Their stay in Elkhead is the subject of Nothing Daunted: The unexpected Education of Two Society Girls in the West by Dorothy Wickenden, who is a magazine editor and Dorothy Woodruff's granddaughter.

Why did they go then? Well, they wanted to do something useful. Soon, however, they realized what they had undertaken.

They moved in with a local family, the Harrisons, and, like them, had little privacy, rare baths, and a blanket of snow on their quilt when they woke up in the morning. Some mornings, Rosamond and Dorothy would arrive at the schoolhouse to find the children weeping from the cold. In spring, the snow was replaced by mud over ice.

In Wickenden's book, she expanded on the history of the West and also on feminism, which of course influenced the girls' decision to go to Elkhead. A hair-raising section concerns the building of the railroads, which entailed(牵涉) drilling through the Rockies, often in blinding snowstorms. The book ends with Rosamond and Dorothy's return to Auburn.

Wickenden is a very good storyteller. The sweep of the land and the stoicism(坚忍) of the people move her to some beautiful writing. Here is a picture of Dorothy Woodruff, on her horse, looking down from a hill top: "When the sun slipped behind the mountains, it shed a rosy glow all around them. Then a full moon rose. The snow was marked only by small animals: foxes, coyotes, mice, and varying hares, which turned white in the winter."

24.Why did Dorothy and Rosamond go to the Rocky Mountains?

A.To teach in a school. B.To study American history.

C.To write a book. D.To do sightseeing.

25.What can we learn about the girls from paragraph 3?

A.They enjoyed much respect. B.They had a room with a bathtub.

C.They lived with the local kids. D.They suffered severe hardships.

26.Which part of Wickenden's writing is hair-raising?

A.The extreme climate of Auburn. B.The living conditions in Elkhead.

C.The railroad building in the Rockies. D.The natural beauty of the West.

27.What is the text?

A.A news report. B.A book review.

C.A children's story. D.A diary entry.

C

Can a small group of drones(无人机) guarantee the safety and reliability of railways and, at the same time, help railway operators save billions of euros each year? that is the very likely future of applying today's "eyes in the sky" technology to making sure that the millions of kilometres of rail tracks and infrastructure(基础设施) worldwide are safe for trains on a 24/7 basis.

Drones are already being used to examine high-tension electrical lines. They could do precisely the same thing to inspect railway lines and other vital aspects of rail infrastructure such as the correct position of railway tracks and switching points. The more regularly they can be inspected, the more railway safety, reliability and on-time performance will be improved. Costs would be cut and operations would be more efficient(高效) across the board.

That includes huge savings in maintenance costs and better protection of railway personnel safety. It is calculated that European railways alone spend approximately 20 billion euros a year on maintenance, including sending maintenance staff, often at night, to inspect and repair the rail infrastructure. That can be dangerous work that could be avoided with drones assisting the crews' efforts.

By using the latest technologies, drones could also start providing higher-value services for railways, detecting faults in the rail or switches, before they can cause any safety problems. To perform these tasks, drones for rail don't need to be flying overhead. Engineers are now working on a new concept: the rail drones of the future. They will be moving on the track ahead of the train, and programmed to run autonomously. Very small drones with advanced sensors and AI and travelling ahead of the train could guide it like a co-pilot. With their ability to see ahead, they could signal any problem, so that fast-moving trains would be able to react in time.

28.What makes the application of drones to rail lines possible?

A.The use of drones in checking on power lines. B.Drones' ability to work at high altitudes.

C.The reduction of cost in designing drones. D.Drones' reliable performance in remote areas.

29.What does "maintenance" underlined in paragraph 3 refer to?

A.Personnel safety. B.Assistance from drones.

C.Inspection and repair. D.Construction of infrastructure.

30.What function is expected of the rail drones?

A.To provide early warning. B.To make trains run automatically.

C.To earn profits for the crews. D.To accelerate transportation.

31.Which is the most suitable title for the text?

A.What Faults Can Be Detected with Drones

B.How production of Drones Can Be Expanded

C.What difficulty Drone Development Will Face

D.How Drones Will Change the Future of Railways

D

The Government's sugar tax on soft drinks has brought in half as much money as Ministers first predicted it would generate, the first official data on the policy has shown.

First announced in April, 2016, the tax which applies to soft drinks containing more than 5g of sugar per 100ml, was introduced to help reduce childhood obesity(肥胖). It is believed that today's children and teenagers are consuming three times the recommended level of sugar, putting them at a higher risk of the disease.

Initially the sugar tax was expected to make £520m a year for the Treasury. However, data of the first six months showed it would make less than half this amount. At present it is expected to generate £240m for the year ending in April 2019, which will go to school sports.

It comes after more than half of soft drinks sold in shops have had their sugar levels cut by manufacturers(制造商) so they can avoid paying the tax. Drinks now contain 45 million fewer kilos of sugar as a result of manufacturers' efforts to avoid the charge, according to Treasury figures. Since April drinks companies have been forced to pay between 18p and 24p for every litre of sugary drink they produce or import, depending on the sugar content.

However, some high sugar brands, like Classic Coca Cola, have accepted the sugar tax and are refusing to change for fear of upsetting consumers. Fruit juices, milk-based drinks and most alcoholic drinks are free of the tax, as are small companies manufacturing fewer than 1m litres per year.

Today's figures, according to one government official, show the positive influence the sugar tax is having by raising millions of pounds for sports facilities(设施) and healthier eating in schools. Helping the next generation to have a healthy and active childhood is of great importance, and the industry is playing its part.

32.Why was the sugar tax introduced?

A.To collect money for schools. B.To improve the quality of drinks.

C.To protect children's health. D.To encourage research in education.

33.How did some drinks companies respond to the sugar tax?

A.They turned to overseas markets. B.They raised the prices of their products.

C.They cut down on their production. D.They reduced their products' sugar content.

34.From which of the following is the sugar tax collected?

A.Most alcoholic drinks. B.Milk-based drinks.

C.Fruit juices. D.Classic Coke.

35.What can be inferred about the adoption of the sugar tax policy?

A.It is a short-sighted decision. B.It is a success story.

C.It benefits manufacturers. D.It upsets customers.

2022年新高考I卷

A

Grading Policies for introduction to Literature

Grading Scale

90-100, A; 80-89, B; 70-79, C; 60-69, D; Below 60, E.

Essays (60%)

Your four major essays will combine to form the main part of the grade for this course: Essay 1 = 10%; Essay 2 = 15%; Essay 3 = 15%; Essay 4 = 20%.

Group Assignments (30%)

Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (作业) during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.

Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework (10%)

Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete short in-class writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previous class' lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home, both of which will be graded.

Late Work

An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be accepted.

21. Where is this text probably taken from?

A. A textbook. B. An exam paper. C. A course plan. D. An academic article.

22. How many parts is a student’s final grade made up of?

A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.

23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?

A. You will receive a zero. B. You will lose a letter grade.

C. You will be given a test. D. You will have to rewrite it.

B

Like most of us, I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste. The arugula (芝麻菜)was to make a nice green salad, rounding out a roast chicken dinner. But I ended up working late. Then friends called with a dinner invitation. I stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days passed, the arugula went bad. Even worse, I had unthinkingly bought way too much; I could have made six salads with what I threw out.

In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry, “food waste goes against the moral grain,” as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month’s cover story. It’s jaw-dropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away — from “ugly” (but quite eatable) vegetables rejected by grocers to large amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.

Producing food that no one eats wastes the water, fuel, and other resources used to grow it. That makes food waste an environmental problem. In fact, Royte writes, “if food waste were a country, it would be the third largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world.”

If that’s hard to understand, let’s keep it as simple as the arugula at the back of my refrigerator. Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time — but for him, it's more like 12 bones of donated strawberries nearing their last days. Curtin is CEO of DC central Kitchen in Washington, D.C., which recovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recovered more than 807,500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished (有瑕疵的) produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields. And the strawberries? Volunteers will wash, cut, and freeze or dry them for use in meals down the road.

Such methods seem obvious, yet so often we just don’t think. “Everyone can play a part in reducing waste, whether by not purchasing more food than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not include the side dish you won’t eat,” Curtin says.

24. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story?

A. We pay little attention to food waste. B. We waste food unintentionally at times.

C We waste more vegetables than meat. D. We have good reasons for wasting food.

25. What is a consequence of food waste according to the test?

A. Moral decline. B. Environmental harm.

C. energy shortage. D. Worldwide starvation.

26. What does Curtin’s company do?

A. It produces kitchen equipment. B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.

C. It helps local farmers grow fruits. D. It makes meals out of unwanted food.

27. What does Curtin suggest people do?

A. Buy only what is needed. B. reduce food consumption.

C. Go shopping once a week. D. Eat in restaurants less often.

C

The elderly residents (居民) in care homes in London are being given hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.

The project was dreamed up by a local charity (慈善组织) to reduce loneliness and improve elderly people’s wellbeing. It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in use.

Among those taking part in the project is 80-year-old Ruth Xavier. She said: “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went to school. ”

“I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they’ve gone to bed.”

“It’s good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children in to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them. I’m enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something useful.”

There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East, and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.

Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to embark on the project, said: “Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here.”

Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said: “We are happy to be taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities.”

28. What is the purpose of the project?

A. To ensure harmony in care homes. B. To provide part-time jobs for the aged.

C. To raise money for medical research. D. To promote the elderly people’s welfare.

29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?

A. She has learned new life skills. B. She has gained a sense of achievement.

C. She has recovered her memory. D. She has developed a strong personality.

30. What do the underlined words “embark on” mean in paragraph 7?

A. Improve. B. Oppose. C. Begin. D. Evaluate.

31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?

A. It is well received. B. It needs to be more creative.

C. It is highly profitable. D. It takes ages to see the results.

D

Human speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds, from the common “m” and “a” to the rare clicks of some southern African languages. But why are certain sounds more common than others? A ground-breaking, five-year study shows that diet-related changes in human bite led to new speech sounds that are now found in half the world’s languages.

More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called labiodentals, such as “f” and “v”, were more common in the languages of societies that ate softer foods. Now a team of researchers led by Damián Blasi at the university of Zurich, Switzerland, has found how and why this trend arose.

They discovered that the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults were aligned (对齐), making it hard to produce labiodentals, which are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper teeth. Later, our jaws changed to an overbite structure (结构), making it easier to produce such sounds.

The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development of agriculture in the Neolithic period. Food became easier to chew at this point. The jawbone didn’t have to do as much work and so didn’t grow to be so large.

Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global change in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age, with the use of “f” and “v” increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years. These sounds are still not found in the languages of many hunter-gatherer people today.

This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds were present when human beings evolved around 300,000 years ago. ”The set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable since the appearance of human beings, but rather the huge variety of speech sounds that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like biological change and cultural evolution,“ said Steven Moran, a member of the research team.

32. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damián Blasi’s research focus on?

A. Its variety. B. Its distribution. C. Its quantity. D. Its development.

33. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals?

A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.

B. They could not open and close their lips easily.

C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.

D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.

34. What is paragraph 5 mainly about?

A. Supporting evidence for the research results.

B. potential application of the research findings.

C. A further explanation of the research methods.

D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.

35. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds?

A. It is key to effective communication. B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.

C. It is a complex and dynamic system. D. It drives the evolution of human beings.

2022年新高考全国Ⅱ卷

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

A

Children’s Discovery Museum

General information about Group Play

Pricing

Group Play $7/person

Scholarships

We offer scholarships to low-income schools and youth organizations, subject to availability. Participation in a post-visit survey is required.Scholarships are for Group Play admission fees and/or transportation. transportation invoices (发票) must be received within 60 days of your visit to guarantee the scholarship.

Group Size

We require one chaperone (监护人) per ten children. failure to provide enough chaperones will result in an extra charge of $50 per absent adult.

Group Play is for groups of 10 or more with a limit of 35 people. For groups of 35 or more, please call to discuss options.

Hours

The Museum is open daily from 9:30 am to 4:30 pm.

Group Play may be scheduled during any day or time the Museum is open.

Registration Policy

Registration must be made at least two weeks in advance.Register online or fill out a Group Play Registration Form with multiple date and start time options.Once the registration form is received and processed, we will send a confirmation email within two business days.

Guidelines

●Teachers and chaperones should model good behavior for the group and remain with students at all times.●Children are not allowed unaccompanied in all areas of the Museum.●Children should play nicely with each other and exhibits.●Use your indoor voice when at the Museum.

21. What does a group need to do if they are offered a scholarship?

A. Prepay the admission fees.B. Use the Museum’s transportation.

C. Take a survey after the visit.D. schedule their visit on weekdays.

22. How many chaperones are needed for a group of 30 children to visit the Museum?

A. One.B. Two.C. Three.D. Four.

23. What are children prohibited from doing at the Museum?

A. Using the computer.B. Talking with each other.

C. Touching the exhibits.D. Exploring the place alone.

B

We journalists live in a new age of storytelling, with many new multimedia tools. Many young people don’t even realize it’s new. For them, it’s just normal.

This hit home for me as I was sitting with my 2-year-old grandson on a sofa over the Spring festival holiday. I had brought a children’s book to read. It had simple words and colorful pictures — a perfect match for his age.

Picture this: my grandson sitting on my lap as I hold the book in front so he can see the pictures. As I read, he reaches out and pokes (戳) the page with his finger.

What’s up with that? He just likes the pictures, I thought. Then I turned the page and continued. He poked the page even harder. I nearly dropped the book. I was confused: Is there something wrong with this kid?

Then I realized what was happening. He was actually a stranger to books. His father frequently amused the boy with a tablet computer which was loaded with colorful pictures that come alive when you poke them. He thought my storybook was like that.

Sorry, kid. This book is not part of your high-tech world. It’s an outdated, lifeless thing. An antique, like your grandfather. Well, I may be old, but I’m not hopelessly challenged, digitally speaking. I edit video and produce audio. I use mobile payment. I’ve even built websites.

There’s one notable gap in my new-media experience, however: I’ve spent little time in front of a camera, since I have a face made for radio. But that didn’t stop China Daily from asking me last week to share a personal story for a video project about the integration of Beijing, Tianjin and Hebei province.

Anyway, grandpa is now an internet star — two minutes of fame! I promise not to let it go to my head. But I will make sure my 2-year-old grandson sees it on his tablet.

24. What do the underlined words “hit home for me” mean in paragraph 2?

A. Provided shelter for me. B. Became very clear to me.

C. Took the pressure off me. D. Worked quite well on me.

25. Why did the kid poke the storybook?

A. He took it for a tablet computer. B. He disliked the colorful pictures.

C. He was angry with his grandpa. D. He wanted to read it by himself.

26. What does the author think of himself?

A. Socially ambitious. B. Physically attractive.

C. Financially independent. D. Digitally competent.

27. What can we learn about the author as a journalist?

A. He lacks experience in his job. B. He seldom appears on television.

C. He manages a video department. D. He often interviews internet stars.

C

Over the last seven years, most states have banned texting by drivers, and public service campaigns have tried a wide range of methods to persuade people to put down their phones when they are behind the wheel.

Yet the problem, by just about any measure, appears to be getting worse. Americans are still texting while driving, as well as using social networks and taking photos. Road accidents, which had fallen for years, are now rising sharply.

That is partly because people are driving more, but Mark Rosekind, the chief of the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration, said distracted(分心)driving was "only increasing, unfortunately."

"Big change requires big ideas." he said in a speech last month, referring broadly to the need to improve road safety. So to try to change a distinctly modern behavior, lawmakers and public health experts are reaching back to an old approach: They want to treat distracted driving like drunk driving.

An idea from lawmakers in New York is to give police officers a new device called the Textalyzer. It would work like this: An officer arriving at the scene of a crash could ask for the phones of the drivers and use the Textalyzer to check in the operating system for recent activity. The technology could determine whether a driver had just texted, emailed or done anything else that is not allowed under New York's hands-free driving laws.

"We need something on the books that can change people's behavior,” said Félix W. Ortiz, who pushed for the state's 2001 ban on hand-held devices by drivers. If the Textalyzer bill becomes law, he said, "people are going to be more afraid to put their hands on the cell phone."

28. Which of the following best describes the ban on drivers' texting in the US?

A. Ineffective. B. Unnecessary.

C. Inconsistent. D. Unfair.

29. What can the Textalyzer help a police officer find out?

A. Where a driver came from. B. Whether a driver used their phone.

C. How fast a driver was going. D. When a driver arrived at the scene.

30 What does the underlined word "something" in the last paragraph refer to?

A. Advice. B. Data. C. Tests. D. Laws.

31. What is a suitable title for the text?

A. To Drive or Not to Drive? Think Before You Start

B. Texting and Driving? Watch Out for the Textalyzer

C. New York Banning Hand-Held Devices by Drivers.

D. The Next generation Cell Phone: The Textalyzer-

D

As we age, even if we're healthy, the heart just isn't as efficient in processing oxygen as it used to be. In most people the first signs show up in their 50s or early 60s. And among people who don't exercise, the changes can start even sooner.

"Think of a rubber band. In the beginning, it is flexible, but put it in a drawer for 20 years and it will become dry and easily broken," says Dr. Ben Levine, a heart specialist at the university of Texas. That's what happens to the heart. Fortunately for those in midlife, Levine is finding that even if you haven't been an enthusiastic exerciser, getting in shape now may help improve your aging heart.

Levine and his research team selected volunteers aged between 45 and 64 who did not exercise much but were otherwise healthy. Participants were randomly divided into two groups. The first group participated in a program of nonaerobic(无氧)exercise—balance training and weight training—three times a week. The second group did high-intensity aerobic exercise under the guidance of a trainer for four or more days a week. After two years, the second group saw remarkable improvements in heart health.

"We took these 50-year-old hearts and turned the clock back to 30-or 35-year-old hearts," says Levine. "And the reason they got so much stronger and fitter was that their hearts could now fill a lot better and pump(泵送)a lot more blood during exercise." But the hearts of those who participated in less intense exercise didn't change, he says.

"The sweet spot in life to start exercising, if you haven't already, is in late middle age when the heart still has flexibility," Levine says. "We put healthy 70-year-olds through a yearlong exercise training program, and nothing happened to them at all."

Dr. Nieca Goldberg, a spokeswoman for the American Heart Association, says Levine's findings are a great start. But the study was small and needs to be repeated with far larger groups of people to determine exactly which aspects of an exercise routine make the biggest difference.

32. What does Levine want to explain by mentioning the rubber band?

A. The right way of exercising. B. The causes of a heart attack.

C. The difficulty of keeping fit. D. The aging process of the heart.

33. In which aspect were the two groups different in terms of research design?

A. Diet plan. B. professional background.

C. Exercise type. D. previous physical condition.

34. What does Levine's research find?

A. Middle-aged hearts get younger with aerobic exercise.

B. High-intensity exercise is more suitable for the young.

C. It is never too late for people to start taking exercise.

D. The more exercise we do, the stronger our hearts get.

35. What does Dr. Nieca Goldberg suggest?

A. Making use of the findings. B. Interviewing the study participants.

C. Conducting further research. D. Clarifying the purpose of the study.

2022年1月浙江卷

第二部分阅读理解(共两节,满分35分)

阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题纸上将该项涂黑。

A

For nearly a decade now, Merebeth has been a self-employed pet transport specialist. Her pet transport job was born of the financial crisis(危机) in the late 2000s. The downturn hit the real estate(房地产)firm where she had worked for ten years as an office manager. The firm went broke and left her looking for a new job. One day, while driving near her home, she saw a dog wandering on the road, clearly lost. She took it home, and her sister in Denver agreed to take it. This was a loving home for sure, but 1,600 miles away. It didn't take long for Merebeth to decide to drive the dog there herself. It was her first road trip to her new job. Merebeth's pet delivery service also satisfies her wanderlust. It has taken her to every state in the US except Montana, Washington and Oregon, she says proudly. If she wants to visit a new place, she will simply find a pet with transport needs there. She travels in all weathers. She has driven through 55 mph winds in Wyoming, heavy flooding and storms in Alabama and total whiteout conditions in Kansas.

This wanderlust is inherited from her father, she says. He moved their family from Canada to California when she was one year old, because he wanted them to explore a new place together. As soon as she graduated from high school she left home to live on Catalina island off the Californian coast, away from her parents, where she enjoyed a life of sailing and off-road biking.

It turns out that pet transporting pays quite well at about $30,000 per year before tax. She doesn't work in summer, as it would be unpleasantly hot for the animals in the car, even with air conditioning. As autumn comes, she gets restless--the same old wanderlust returning. It's a call she must heed alone, though. Merebeth says, "When I am on the road, I'm just in my own world. I've always been independent-spirited and I just feel strongly that I mush help animals."

21.Why did Merebeth changed her job?

A.She wanted to work near her home.

B. She was tired of working in the office.

C. Her sister asked her to move to Denver.

D.Her former employer was out of business.

22.The word “wanderlust” in paragraph 2 means a desire to?

A. make money.

B. try various jobs.

C. be close to nature.

D.travel to different places.

23. What can we learn about Merebeth in her new job?

A. She has chances to see rare animals.

B.She works hard throughout the year.

C. She relies on herself the whole time.

D. She earns a basic and tax-free salary.

B

The United States rose to global power on the strength of its technology, and the lifeblood that technology has long been electricity. By providing long-distance communication and energy, electricity created the modern world. Yet properly understood, the age of electricity is merely the second stage in the age of steam, which began a century earlier.

“It is curious that on one has put together a history of both the steam and electric revolutions." writes Maury Klein in his book The Power Makers, Steam, Electricity, and the Men invented Modern America. Klein, a noted historian of technology, spins a narrative so lively that at times it reads like a novel.

The story begins in the last years of the 18th century in Scotland, where Watt perfected "the machine that changed the world”. Klein writes, “America did not invent the steam engine, but once they grasped its passwords they put it to more uses than anyone else.”

Meanwhile, over the course of 19th century, electricity went from mere curiosity to a basic necessity. Morse invented a code for sending messages over an electromagnetic circuit. Bell then gave the telegraph a voice. Edison perfected an incandescent bulls that brought electric light into the American home.

Most importantly, Edison realized that success depended on mass electrification, which he showed in New York City. With help from Tesla, Westinghouse's firm developed a system using alternating current, which soon became the major forms of power delivery.

To frame his story, Klein creates the character of Ned, a fictional witness to the progress brought about by the steams and electric revolutions in America during one man's lifetime. It's a technique that helps turn a long narrative into an interesting one.

24. What is Klein's understanding of the age if electricity?

A. It is closely linked to the steam age.

B. It began earlier than proper thought.

C. It is a little-studied period of history.

D. It will come to an end sooner or later.

25.What can be inferred about Ned?

A. He was born in New York City.

B. He wrote many increasing stories,

C. He created an electricity company.

D. He lived mainly in the 19th century.

26.What is the text?

A. A biography. B. A book review. C. A short story. D. A science report.

C

The benefits of regular exercise are well documented but there's a new bonus to add to the ever-growing list.New researchers found that middle-aged women who were physically fit could be nearly 90 percent less likely to develop dementia(失智症)in later life, and is they did, it came on a decade later than less sporty women.

Lead researcher Dr. Helena Horder, of the university of Gothenburg in Sweden, said: "These findings are exciting because it's possible that improving people's cardiovascular(心血管的)fitness in middle age could delay or even prevent them from developing dementia.” For the study, 191 women with an average age of 50 took a bicycle exercise test until they were exhausted to measure their peak(最大值的)cardiovascular capacity. The average peak workload was measured at 103 watts.

A total of 40 women met the criteria for a high fitness level, or 120 watts or higher. A total of 92

women were in the medium fitness category; and 59 women were in the low fitness category, defined

as a peak workload of 80 watts or less, or having their exercise tests stopped because of high blood

pressure, chest pain or other cardiovascular problems.

These women were then tested for dementia six times over the following four decades. During that time,44 of the women developed dementia. Five percent of the highly fit women developed dementia, compared to 25 percent of the women with medium fitness and 32 percent of the women with low fitness.

“However, this study does not show cause and effect between cardiovascular fitness and dementia, it only shows an association. More research is needed to see if improved fitness could have a positive effect on the risk of dementia and also to look at when during a lifetime a high fitness level is most important.” She also admitted that a relatively small number of women were studied, all of whom were form Sweden, so the results might not be applicable to other groups.

27. What is on the ever-growing list mentioned in the first paragraph?

A. Positive effects of doing exercises.

B. Exercises suitable for the middle-aged.

C. Experimental studies on diseases.

D. Advantages of sporty woman over man

28. Why did the researchers ask the woman to do bicycle exercise?

A. To predict their maximum heart rate.

B. To assess their cardiovascular capacity

C. To change their habits of working out

D. To detect their potential health problems

29. What do we know about Dr.Horder's study?

A. It aimed to find a cure for dementia.

B. Data collection was a lengthy process.

C. Some participants withdrew from it.

D. The results were far from satisfactory.

30. Which of the following is the best title for the text?

A. More Women Are Exercising to Prevent Dementia

B. Middle-Aged Women Need to Do More Exercise

C. Fit Women Are Less Likely to Develop Dementia

D. Biking Improves Women's Cardiovascular Fitness

答案解析:

2022全国甲卷

A

21. D

解析:根据文章中关于St David's Hall的描述,提到了"St David's Hall is home to the annual Welsh Proms Cardiff.",说明Welsh Proms Cardiff是在St David's Hall举办的。因此,答案是D。

22. B

解析:根据文章中关于The Glee Club的描述,提到了"Every weekend this is 'Wales' premier comedy club where having a great time is the order for both audiences and comedy stars alike.",说明在The Glee Club人们可以享受喜剧表演。因此,答案是B。

23. A

解析:根据文章中关于New Theatre的描述,提到了"The New Theatre has been the home of quality drama, musicals, dance and children's shows for more than 100 years.",并且提供了网址www.newtheatrecardiff.co.uk。要了解Cardiff最古老的传统剧院,应该访问这个网址。因此,答案是A。

B

24. B

解析:根据文章第二段第一句"In a recent experiment, cockatoos were presented with a box with a nut inside it.",以及接下来的描述"Inserting the correct 'key' would let out the nut.",可以得出鹦鹉是通过使用正确的"钥匙"工具来取出坚果的。因此,答案是B。

25. C

解析:根据文章第二段第三句"In humans, babies can put a round shape in a round hole from around one year of age...",说明一岁的人类婴儿能够完成将圆形物体放入圆形孔洞的任务。因此,答案是C。

26. D

解析:根据文章最后一句"The next step, according to the researchers, is to try and work out whether the cockatoos rely entirely on visual clues, or also use a sense of touch in making their shape selections.",研究人员下一步想要弄清楚的是鹦鹉在选择形状时是否完全依赖视觉线索,还是也会使用触觉。因此,答案是D。

27. D

解析:文章主要讲述了Goffin's cockatoos在实验中展现出的形状识别能力,它们能够选择正确的工具来取出坚果,这表明它们具有与两岁儿童相似的空间物体操作能力。因此,"Cockatoos: Skilful Shape-Sorters"(能干的形状分类器)作为文章标题最为合适。答案是D。

C

28. A

解析:根据文章第二段的内容,Ginni在退休后决定去旅行,这是一种冒险的行为,"take the plunge"这个短语在这里指的是下定决心去做某事,尤其是冒险或挑战性的事情。因此,答案是A。

29. C

解析:根据文章第三段的内容,Ginni在智利发现她可以买到去南极洲的便宜船票,这是她决定去南极洲旅行的直接原因。"I just decided I wanted to go... And I wanted to do it alone as I always prefer it that way."表明是她自己决定的,没有提到是因为可爱的企鹅、美丽的风景或朋友的邀请。因此,答案是C。

30. C

解析:根据文章最后一段的内容,Ginni在南极洲的旅行让她意识到这是一片宝贵的土地,需要人类的尊重。"The realization that this is a precious land, to be respected by humans, was one of the biggest things that hit home to Ginni."这表明她认为南极洲应该得到良好的保护。因此,答案是C。

31. B

解析:文章主要讲述了Ginni Bazlinton的一次难忘的南极洲之旅,包括她的旅行动机、旅行经历以及旅行后的感悟。文章的标题应该能够概括整个故事的主题,"An unforgettable experience"(一次难忘的经历)最符合文章的内容。因此,答案是B。

D

32. C

解析:第一段主要讲述了悉尼在20世纪60年代初发现了它的港口,随后发现了其他许多事物,但作者强调是港口让这个城市变得特别。"But it is the harbor that makes the city."这句话表明港口是悉尼发展的关键。因此,答案是C。

33. D

解析:根据文章中关于Andrew Reynolds的描述,他表达了对老渡船的留恋之情,"I'll miss these old boats," he said as we parted. 这表明他对于老渡船有着深厚的感情。因此,答案是D。

34. A

解析:根据文章中关于Shirley Fitzgerald的观点,她提到悉尼在追求现代化的过程中丢弃了很多传统,包括许多最好的建筑。"Sydney is confused about itself... It's a conflict that we aren't getting any better at resolving."这表明她认为悉尼正在失去其传统。因此,答案是A。

35. A

作者在文章最后一段提到“但同时年轻和年老也有它的吸引力”,并且前面还提到悉尼是建立在古老文化基础上的年轻国家,因此作者可能会同意“一个城市可以同时年轻和老练”的观点,即选项A。

2022年全国乙卷

A

21.B. Thurs. 30 Oct.

题目询问参加“Raeburn's English Contemporaries”讲座的正确时间。从表格中可以看到,“Raeburn's English Contemporaries”安排在10月30日星期四。

22.B. £8

题目询问一对夫妇带两个12岁以下的孩子参观需要支付多少费用。根据入场费信息,12岁以下儿童免费,成人票价为£4。两个成人需要支付£4×2=£8,两个孩子免费。

23.C. They must be led by teachers.

题目询问全日制学生如何获得团体折扣。根据表格信息,找到关于学生团体折扣的说明。表格中提到,学生团体需由教师带领才能享受£2的优惠票价。

B

24. A。根据第一段中的“...traveled to a settlement in the Rocky Mountains to teach in a one-room schoolhouse.”可知,Dorothy和Rosamond去Rocky Mountains是为了在一间只有一个房间的学校教书。因此,答案是A。

25. D。根据第三段中的描述,她们与当地家庭一起生活,缺乏隐私,很少洗澡,早上醒来时被子上有雪,孩子们因为寒冷而哭泣,春天雪变成了泥泞。这些都表明她们在那里遭受了严重的艰苦。因此,答案是D。

26. C。根据第四段中的“A hair-raising section concerns the building of the railroads, which entailed drilling through the Rockies, often in blinding snowstorms.”可知,令人毛骨悚然的部分是关于铁路的建设,这涉及到在令人眩目的暴风雪中钻穿落基山脉。因此,答案是C。

27. B。整篇文章都在介绍Dorothy Wickenden的书“Nothing Daunted”,包括书中的内容、两位女主角的经历以及作者对这本书的评价。因此,这篇文章是一篇书评。答案是B。

C

28. A。根据第二段第一句“Drones are already being used to examine high-tension electrical lines.”可知,无人机已经被用于检查高压电线,这表明无人机在检查铁路线和其他重要基础设施方面是可行的。因此,答案是A。

29. C。根据第三段的内容,maintenance一词指的是铁路基础设施的检查和维修工作,这与选项C“Inspection and repair”相符。因此,答案是C。

30. A。根据最后一段中的“Very small drones with advanced sensors and AI and travelling ahead of the train could guide it like a co-pilot. With their ability to see ahead, they could signal any problem, so that fast-moving trains would be able to react in time.”可知,铁路无人机预期的作用是提供早期警告,帮助快速移动的火车及时反应。因此,答案是A。

31. D。整篇文章讨论的是无人机如何被应用于铁路领域,以及它们将如何改变铁路的未来,包括提高安全性、降低成本和提高效率。因此,最合适的标题是“D. How Drones Will Change the Future of Railways”。答案是D。

D

32. C。根据第二段中的“the tax which applies to soft drinks containing more than 5g of sugar per 100ml, was introduced to help reduce childhood obesity(肥胖).”可知,糖税的引入是为了帮助减少儿童肥胖,从而保护儿童的健康。因此,答案是C。

33. D。根据第四段中的“It comes after more than half of soft drinks sold in shops have had their sugar levels cut by manufacturers(制造商) so they can avoid paying the tax.”可知,为了避免支付糖税,超过一半的软饮料制造商减少了饮料中的糖分。因此,答案是D。

34. D。根据第五段中的“However, some high sugar brands, like Classic Coca Cola, have accepted the sugar tax and are refusing to change for fear of upsetting consumers.”可知,像经典可口可乐这样的高糖品牌接受了糖税,并没有改变其配方。因此,经典可乐是需要缴纳糖税的。答案是D。

35. B。根据最后一段中的“Today's figures, according to one government official, show the positive influence the sugar tax is having by raising millions of pounds for sports facilities(设施) and healthier eating in schools.”可知,糖税政策产生了积极的影响,为学校的体育设施和更健康的饮食筹集了数百万英镑。这表明糖税政策的采纳是一个成功的故事。因此,答案是B。

2022年新高考I卷

A

21. C 解析:本文是一份文学入门课程的评分政策,它详细说明了课程的成绩组成、评分标准、作业提交方式以及迟交作业的处理方法。这些都是课程计划中会包含的内容,因此最有可能的来源是课程计划。

22. B 解析:根据文章中的"Essays (60%)","Group Assignments (30%)","Daily Work/In-Class Writings and Tests/Group Work/Homework (10%)",可以得知学生的最终成绩由三部分组成,即论文、小组作业和日常作业/课堂写作和测试/小组工作/家庭作业。

23. A 解析:根据文章中的"An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it is late. If it is not turned in by the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero.",可以推断出如果论文迟交一个星期(假设一周有五个上课日),将会失去四个等级,并在第四天之后得零分。因此,如果在一周后提交,将会得到零分。

B

24. B 解析:作者通过讲述芝麻菜的故事,想要表达的是我们有时会在无意中浪费食物。在文中,作者原本打算用芝麻菜做沙拉,但因为加班和朋友的邀请,最终导致芝麻菜变质被扔掉。这个故事反映了人们在日常生活中不经意间造成的食物浪费。

25. B 解析:根据文章第二段和第三段的内容,食物浪费会导致资源的浪费,如水、燃料等,这些都是用于生产食物的资源。文章还提到,如果食物浪费是一个国家,它将是世界上第三大温室气体排放国。这些都说明食物浪费是一个环境问题。

26. D 解析:根据文章第四段,Curtin是DC Central Kitchen的CEO,这个组织回收食物并将其转化为健康的餐食。去年,他们通过捐赠和收集有瑕疵的农产品,回收了超过807,500磅的食物。因此,Curtin的公司将不需要的食物变成餐食。

27. A 解析:根据文章最后一段,Curtin说每个人都可以在减少浪费中发挥作用,比如在每周购物时不要购买比必要更多的食物,或者要求餐厅不要上你不会吃的配菜。这表明Curtin建议人们只购买他们需要的东西,以减少食物浪费。

C

28. D 解析:文章第一段提到,这个项目的目的是为了减少老年人的孤独感并改善他们的福祉。因此,项目的目的是为了促进老年人的福利。

29. B 解析:根据文章第四段,Ruth Xavier 表示她非常喜欢这个项目,她每天早上都会去放鸡,晚上确认它们已经上床睡觉。她认为这样做很有趣,感觉做了一件有用的事情。这表明这个项目让她获得了一种成就感。

30. C 解析:在文章第七段中,"embark on" 这个短语用来描述 Wendy Wilson 所在的养老院是第一批参与这个项目的。在这里,"embark on" 的意思是“开始”,所以正确答案是 C。

31. A 解析:文章最后两段提到了两个不同的人物,Wendy Wilson 和 Lynn Lewis,他们都对这个项目表示了积极的评价。Wendy Wilson 表示居民们非常欢迎这个项目的想法和创意活动,而 Lynn Lewis 表示参与这个项目能够让居民通过共同的兴趣和创意活动建立联系。这表明该项目受到了好评。

D

32. D 解析:第二段提到“Now a team of researchers led by Damián Blasi at the University of Zurich,Switzerland,has found how and why this trend arose”,即Damián Blasi的研究团队发现了这种趋势(人类发音变化)是如何以及为什么产生的,因此他的研究重点是语音的发展。所以答案是D。

33. C 解析:文章第三段提到,古代成年人的上齿和下齿是对齐的,这使得产生由下唇触碰上齿形成的labiodentals(如“f”和“v”)变得困难。这说明古代人类成年人难以产生labiodentals是因为他们的颌部结构不方便。

34. A 解析:第五段提到了对语言数据库的分析,确认了在新石器时代之后,世界语言的声音发生了全球性的变化,其中“f”和“v”的使用在过去的几千年中显著增加。这些分析结果支持了研究团队关于咬合变化与农业发展相关联的发现,因此这一段主要是关于支持研究结果的证据。

35. C 解析:最后一段中,Steven Moran提到,我们使用的语音声音集合并不一定自人类出现以来就保持稳定,而是生物变化和文化演化的复杂相互作用的结果。这表明他认为人类语音声音是一个复杂且动态的系统。

2022年新高考全国Ⅱ卷

A

21.C. Take a survey after the visit.

在Scholarships部分中提到,获得奖学金需要参与访问后的调查,因此如果团体获得奖学金,他们需要做的是在参观后进行调查,选项C符合题意。

22.C. Three.

根据Group Size部分的信息,每十个孩子需要一个监护人,如果一个有30个孩子的团体去参观博物馆,就需要三个监护人。因此,正确答案是C。

23.D. Exploring the place alone.

在Guidelines部分中提到,孩子们不允许在博物馆的所有区域单独行动,即禁止独自探索这个地方,因此选项D正确。

B

24. "hit home for me"这个短语在这里的意思是作者意识到了一些事情的重要性或真实性。根据上下文,作者通过和孙子一起读书的经历意识到了新时代讲故事的方式对年轻人来说是多么自然。因此,"hit home for me"意味着这个事实变得非常清晰对作者来说。所以选B。

25. 根据第四段中的描述,孙子戳书页是因为他认为书和他在平板电脑上看到的互动图片一样。作者提到孙子经常用平板电脑看彩色图片,并且图片会在戳的时候动起来。因此,孙子戳书页是因为他把故事书误认为是可以互动的平板电脑。所以选A。

26. 在倒数第二段中,作者提到自己虽然年纪大了,但在数字技术方面并不落后,他会编辑视频、制作音频、使用移动支付,甚至建立网站。这些都表明作者认为自己数字技术上是有能力的。所以选D。

27. 在最后一段中,作者提到自己很少在镜头前,因为他的脸适合广播,这暗示了他很少上电视。然后提到中国日报请他参与一个视频项目,这进一步说明他很少出现在电视上。所以选B。

C

28. 文章第一段提到大多数州禁止司机发短信,但第二段指出问题似乎在恶化,道路事故在增加。这表明禁止司机发短信的措施并没有取得预期的效果,因此可以推断这个禁令是无效的。所以选A。

29. 根据第五段中的描述,Textalyzer这个设备可以检查司机的手机操作系统中的最近活动,以确定司机是否违反了纽约的免提驾驶法。因此,Textalyzer可以帮助警察发现司机是否使用了手机。所以选B。

30. 在最后一段中,"something on the books"指的是法律条文中的规定。Félix W. Ortiz提到需要有能够改变人们行为的东西,结合上下文,这里指的是法律。所以选D。

31. 文章主要讨论了美国司机在驾驶时分心使用手机的问题,以及纽约州提出的Textalyzer法案,这个法案旨在通过检查司机是否在驾驶时使用手机来减少分心驾驶。因此,"Texting and Driving? Watch Out for the Textalyzer"是一个合适的标题,它概括了文章的主要内容。所以选B。

D

32. 在第二段中,Dr. Ben Levine用橡皮筋的比喻来解释心脏随着年龄增长而发生变化的过程。他说,一开始橡皮筋是有弹性的,但放在抽屉里20年后就会变干易断,这就是心脏发生的变化。因此,他提到橡皮筋是为了解释心脏的老化过程。所以选D。

33. 根据第四段中的描述,研究团队将志愿者随机分为两组,第一组进行非有氧运动,第二组进行高强度有氧运动。这是研究设计中两个组别之间的区别。所以选C。

34. 根据第五段中的描述,第二组(进行高强度有氧运动)在两年后心脏健康有了显著改善,Levine说这些50岁人的心脏变得像30或35岁人的心脏。这表明有氧运动可以使中年人的心脏变得更年轻。所以选A。

35. 在最后一段中,Dr. Nieca Goldberg提到Levine的研究是一个很好的开始,但研究样本较小,需要用更大的人群重复研究,以确定运动常规的哪些方面对心脏健康的影响最大。这表明她建议进行进一步的研究。所以选C。

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A

21. D根据第一段中的"The downturn hit the real estate firm where she had worked for ten years as an office manager. The firm went broke and left her looking for a new job."可知,Merebeth之前工作的房地产公司破产了,她因此失去了工作,所以需要找新工作,故选D。

22. D根据第二段中的"It has taken her to every state in the US except Montana, Washington and Oregon, she says proudly."和"If she wants to visit a new place, she will simply find a pet with transport needs there."可知,Merebeth喜欢去不同的地方,所以"wanderlust"在这里意味着想要去不同地方旅行的愿望,故选D。

23. C根据最后一段中的"I'm just in my own world. I've always been independent-spirited and I just feel strongly that I must help animals."可知,Merebeth在新工作中一直依靠自己,她一直有独立的精神,故选C。

B

24. A根据文章第二段中的"Yet properly understood, the age of electricity is merely the second stage in the age of steam, which began a century earlier."可知,Klein认为电力时代仅仅是蒸汽时代的第二阶段,这两个时代是紧密相连的,故选A。

25. D根据文章最后一段中的"To frame his story, Klein creates the character of Ned, a fictional witness to the progress brought about by the steam and electric revolutions in America during one man's lifetime."可知,Ned是一个虚构的角色,他见证了蒸汽和电力革命在一个人的生命周期内给美国带来的进步。由于蒸汽革命开始于18世纪末,电力革命主要发生在19世纪,可以推断Ned主要生活在19世纪,故选D。

26. B整篇文章讲述了Klein的书《The Power Makers, Steam, Electricity, and the Men Who Invented Modern America》的内容,包括对蒸汽和电力革命的历史叙述,以及对Klein写作技巧的评价。因此,这篇文章是一篇书评,故选B。

C

27. A根据第一段中的"The benefits of regular exercise are well documented but there's a new bonus to add to the ever-growing list."可知,这里提到的不断增长的列表是指定期锻炼的好处,而新研究发现的中年女性身体健壮可以降低失智症风险是添加到这个列表上的新好处,故选A。

28. B根据第二段中的"For the study, 191 women with an average age of 50 took a bicycle exercise test until they were exhausted to measure their peak cardiovascular capacity."可知,研究人员让女性进行自行车运动测试是为了测量她们的最大心血管能力,故选B。

29. B根据第四段中的"These women were then tested for dementia six times over the following four decades."可知,这项研究的数据收集过程持续了四十年,对女性进行了六次失智症测试,说明数据收集是一个漫长的过程,故选B。

30. C整篇文章讨论的是一项研究,该研究发现身体健壮的中年女性在晚年患失智症的可能性要低得多,如果她们确实患上了失智症,也比不太爱运动的女性的发病时间晚十年。因此,文章的最佳标题应该是"C. Fit Women Are Less Likely to Develop Dementia",因为它概括了文章的主要内容,故选C。

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高考英语阅读理解专项训练19篇(含答案)

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